Đề thi thử THPT quốc gia năm lần 5 môn: Tiếng anh - Trường THPT Quảng La

I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 64 (8 điểm)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from pronunciation in each of the following questions from 1 to 2.

Question 1: A. hours B. fathers C. dreams D. thinks

Question 2: A. element B. dedicate C. event D. devote

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 3 to 5.

Question 3: A. explain B. involve C. purpose D. advise

Question 4: A. suggestion B. cigarette C. environment D. protection

Question 5: A. electronic B. insurance C. understand D. expedition

 

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on. When basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games in St. Luis, it quickly spread throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop was used for the first time to replace the basket, but the name basketball has remained.
(Source: Barron’s TOEFL PBT & iBT, by Pamela J. Sharpe, Ph.D)
 Question 35: What does this passage mainly discuss?
	A. Dr. James Naismith	B. The development of basketball
	C. The YMCA athletic program	D. The Olympic Games in St. Luis in 1904
 Question 36: Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball?
	A. He was tired of baseball and football
	B. He did not like soccer or rugby.
	C. He wanted his students to exercise during the winter.
	D. He could not convince his students to play indoors
 Question 37: The word "fierce" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
	A. long	B. boring	C. extreme	D. dark
 Question 38: Soccer and rugby are the example of ________.
	A. outdoor games	B. old peach baskets	C. indoor play	D. confined areas
 Question 39: The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to
	A. seasons	B. areas	C. indoors	D. games
 Question 40: The word "staged" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
	A. replaced	B. organized	C. run	D. remained
 Question 41: The author mentions all of the following as typical of the early game of basketball EXCEPT__________.
	A. nine players were on a team
	B. the ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score
	C. three points were scored for every basket
	D. running with the ball was not a foul
Question 42: The word in the LAST paragraph that means "lessened" is _______.
	A. became	B. remained	C. reduced	D. introduced
Question 43: In which paragraph does the author discuss the first basketball championship tournament?
	A. Paragraph 2	B. Paragraph 3	C. Paragraph 5	D. Paragraph 4
 Question 44: Which sentence is TRUE about the basketball game, according to the reading passage?
	A. The basketball game became popular before 1891.
	B. There were five players on each side in 1897.
	C. The name of basketball has been changed since 1906.
	D. There were nine players on each side in 1904 season.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54
	Course numbers are an indication of which courses are to various categories of students at the University. Undergraduate courses with the numbers 100 or 200 are generally introductory courses appropriate for freshmen or sophomores, whereas courses with the numbers 300 or 400 often have prerequisites and are often to juniors and seniors only. Courses with the numbers 800 or above are open only to graduate students. Certain graduate courses, generally those devoted to introductory material, are numbered 400 for undergraduate students who qualify to take them and 600 for graduate students. Courses designed for students seeking a professional degree carry a 500 number for undergraduate students and a 700 number for graduate students. Courses numbered 99 or below are special interest courses that do not carry academic credit. If students elect to take a special interest course, it will not count toward the number of hours needed to complete graduation requirements.
	 Full-time undergraduate student is expected to take courses that total twelve to eighteen credit hours. A full-time graduate student is expected to take courses that total ten to sixteen credit hours. Student holding assistantships are expected to enroll for proportionately fewer hours. A part-time graduate may register for minimum of three credit hours. An overload, that is, more than the maximum number of hours, may be taken with the approval of an academic advisor. To register for an overload, students must submit the appropriate approval form when registering. Overloads above 24 hours will not be approved under any circumstances.
(Source: Practice Exercises for the TOEFL iBT, by Pamela J. Sharpe, Ph.D)
 Question 45: Where would the passage most likely be found?
	A. In a graduate course	B. In an undergraduate course
	C. In a college catalog	D. In a syllabus
 Question 46: What is the purpose of the passage?
	A. To apologize	B. To inform	C. To persuade	D. To criticize
 Question 47: The word "categories" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.
	A. teachers	B. courses	C. jobs	D. groups
 Question 48: The word "those" in paragraph 1 refers to_______.
	A. graduate courses	B. course numbers	C. introductory courses	D. graduate students
 Question 49: Which classification of students would be eligible to enroll in Mechanical Engineering 850?
	A. A part- time student	B. An undergraduate student	
	C. A full- time student	D. A graduate student
 Question 50: If an undergraduate student uses the number 520 to register a accounting course, what number would a graduate student probably use to register for the same course?
	A. Accounting 620	B. Accounting 820	C. Accounting 520	D. Accounting 720
 Question 51: How is a student who registers for eight credit hours classified?
	A. Full- time student	B. Graduate student	
	C. Part- time student	D. Non-degree student
 Question 52: Which of the following courses would NOT be included in the list of courses for graduation?
	A. English 90	B. Eglish 100	C. English 300	D. English 400
 Question 53: A graduate student may NOT_________.
	A. enroll in a course numbered 610	
	B. register for only one one-hour course
	C. enroll in an introductory course	
	D. register for courses if he has an assistantship
 Question 54: The word "appropriate" in the LAST paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
	A. wrong	B. interest	C. suitable	D. denial
 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the blank from 55 to 64
The UK Government ensures that all schools in the UK (55)_______ certain standards, and this includes independent schools as well as those that are (56)_______ by the Government. All qualifications are awarded by national agencies accredited by the Qualification and Curriculum Authority (QCA), (57)_______ the quality of the qualifications you will gain is guaranteed.
At many independent schools in England, you will be encouraged to take part (58)_______ extracurricular activities to develop your hobbies and learn new skills, and you may be encouraged to take graded music exams (59)_______ by the Associated Board of the Royal Schools of Music. The exam grades gained from these are widely accepted toward university entry (60)_______ .
Independent schools do not usually offer vocationally focused qualifications but if you are (61)_______ in these qualifications, you can find out more in the 'career-based and pre-university qualifications' section.
`	The (62)_______ you pay to attend independent school, include your course fees, accommodation and may include some or all extracurricular activities. Fees (63)_______ from school to school and are at the discretion of the institution; there are no national standards. You should expect to pay a minimum of £8,000 per year and fees can be (64)_______ high as £25,000.
 Question 55: A. meet	B. notice	C. see	D. look
 Question 56: A. worked	B. indicated	C. run	D. shown
 Question 57: A. although	B. so	C. if	D. because
 Question 58: A. for	B. in	C. on	D. into
 Question 59: A. offered	B. to offer	C. offering	D. offer
 Question 60: A. questions	B. requirements	C. problems	D. troubles
 Question 61: A. excited	B. concerned	C. interested	D. worried
 Question 62: A. funds	B. bills	C. donations	D. fees
 Question 63: A. transfer	B. vary	C. interfere	D. exchange
 Question 64: A. much	B. more	C. far	D. as
II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (2 điểm) 
A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence before it.
Question 1: My book is not as expensive as yours.
à Your book is more_______________________________________________________
Question 2: : It took him two hours to drive to London.
à He spent _________________________________________________________
Question 3: . Although he was very tired, he managed to finish the marathon race. 
à In spite of_______________________________________________________
Question 4: This book is very interesting to me.
à I am interested_____________________________________________________________
Question 5: . I had no sooner closed the door than somebody knocked.
à Hardly had _____________________________________________________________
B. In about 100-120 words, write a paragraph about your family.
---------------THE END----------------
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ TN THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015 - SỐ 5 Mã đề thi: 285
Phần trắc nghiệm: (64 câu - mỗi câu 0,125 điểm)
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WRITING (2,0 điểm)
A. Rewrite the following sentences in order to keep their original meanings. (0,5 điểm - mỗi câu 0,1 điểm)
Question 1: Your book is more expensive than mine/my book.
Question 2: He spent two hours to drive to London.
Question 3: In spite of being very tired, he managed to finish the marathon race. 
Question 4: I am interested in this book.
Question 5: Hardly had I closed the door when somebody knocked.
B. In about 100-120 words, write a paragraph about your family. 
 (1,5 điểm)
Giám khảo tự quyết định dựa trên các yêu cầu sau
Đáp ứng được cấu trúc của đoạn văn (Topic sentence, supporting ideas, concluding sentence): điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm
Đáp ứng được yêu cầu về nội dung của đề: điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm
Sử dụng linh hoạt và chính xác một số cấu trúc ngữ pháp , sử dựng được vốn từ vựng phong phú, bài văn viết trôi chảy, mạch lạc, đáp ứng được độ dài theo yêu cầu của đề: điểm tối đa là 0,5 điểm
Sai dưới 4 lỗi về cấu trúc ngữ pháp, từ vựng không trừ điểm.
Sai trên 4 lỗi trừ điểm, đặc biệt các lỗi nặng trừ 0,1 điểm

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