Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi tỉnh lớp 9 THCS năm học 2014 – 2015 tỉnh Hải Dương môn thi: Tiếng anh
A. LISTENING
Hướng dẫn phần thi Nghe hiểu:
Trong phần thi Nghe hiểu thí sinh được nghe 2 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc các phần nghe có tín hiệu. Thí sinh có thời gian đọc câu hỏi trước khi nghe nội dung bài. Mọi hướng dẫn (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài nghe.
I. You will hear five different people giving some information about what they do . Listen and decide what each person's job is.
trainer reporter football player TV presenter champion
1. Speaker A :.
2. Speaker B :.
3. Speaker C :.
4. Speaker D :.
5. Speaker E :.
ry, government, and art. In nations (64) ____ food is plentiful and easy to get, men have more time to spend on activities that lead to progress and enjoyment of leisure. The (65) ___ of providing good food for everybody has not (66) ___ solved. Many wars have been fought for food. But it is (67) ____ longer necessary to go to wars for food. Nations (68) ___ beginning to put scientific knowledge to work for a (69) ___ of their food problems. They work together in the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) to (70)____ hungry nations produce more food. III. Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question. (5 points) At the age of sixty-five, Laura Ingalls Wilder began writing a series of novels for young people based on her early experiences on the American frontier . Born in the state of Wiscosin in 1867, she and her family were rugged pioneers. Seeking better farm land, they went by covered wagon to Missouri in 1869, then on to Kansas the next year, returning to Wisconsin in 1871, and traveling on to Minnesota and Lowa before settling permanently in South Dakota in 1879. Because of this continuing moving, Wilder's early education took place sporadically in a succession of one-room schools. From age thirteen to sixteen she attended school more regularly although she never graduated. At the age of eighteen, she married Almanzo James Wilder. They bought a small farm in the Ozarks, where they remained for the rest of their lives. Their only daughter, Rose, who had become a nationally known journalist, encouraged her mother to write. Serving as agent and editor, Rose negotiated with Harper's to publish her mother's first book, Little House on the Big Woods. Seven more books followed, each chronicling her early life on the plains. Written from the perspective of a child, they have remained popular with young readers from many nations. Twenty years after her death in 1957, more than 20 million copies had been sold, and they had been translated into fourteen languages. In 1974, a weekly television series, "Little House on the Prairie ", was produced based on the stories from the Wilder books. 71. What is the main topic of the passage? A. Wilder' s career B. Children's literature C. A weekly television series D. American pioneer life 72. The author mentions all of the following events in the life of Laura Ingalls Wilder EXCEPT __________. A. She married Almanzo Wilder. B. She graduated from a one-room school. C. She went west by covered wagon. D. She had one daughter. 73. Wilder's early education took place _______. A. for a long time B. at irregular intervals C. with great success D. in a very efficient way 74. The word they refers to ____. A. many nations B. the plains C. more books D. young readers 75. It can be referred from the passage that_______. A. Wilder's daughter was not a successful writer. B. the Wilders were not happy living in the Ozarks. C. Laura Ingalls Wilder wrote scripts for the television series. D. the Wilders books have a universal appeal. E. WRITING: I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence given before it. (5.0 points) 76. The programme was so successful that they decided to produce the 2nd season. → So .. . 77. My father works in a company which has more than a thousand employers. → There are . . 78. Keeping calm is the secret of passing your test. → As long as . . 79. Thanks to her parents’ encouragement, she entered the beauty contest . → Had it . . 80. You’re the best football player in our school. → No one . . II. Use the suggested words and phrases to write complete sentences about Tet holiday in Vietnam. ( 10 points) 81. Tet holiday/ celebrate/ first day / Lunar New Year. 82. Some weeks / New Year, / Vietnamese / clean / houses / paint / walls. Then/ decorate/ house apricot blossoms/ peach blossoms. 83. New things/ buy/ occasion /as clothes/shoes/ food. 84. One / two days / festival, people make Chung Cake / be/ traditional cake. 85. / New Year’s Eve, / whole family /get together / a dinner. 86. / New Year morning, / young member / the family /pay / respects / the elders. 87. In return, they /receive lucky money /wrap / red tiny envelopes. 88. After/ people go / visit / neighbors, friends / relatives. 89. / exchange/ wish/ happy/ prosperous/ New Year/ one another. 89. Tet/ not only/ time/ people/ relax/ after/ year/ hard work/ also/help family members/ friends/ relatives/ get closer. III. “Mother’s Day and Father’s Day are not celebrated in Vietnam, but it is necessary for Vietnamese people to have a day for parents .” Write a passage of about 120 – 150 words to your friend to share your idea. (10 points) ========== THE END ========== Họ và tên thí sinh: ................................................... Số báo danh ................ Họ tên, chữ ký giám thị 1: ............................................................................ Họ tên, chữ ký giám thị 2: ............................................................................ SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HẢI DƯƠNG -------------------- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 9 THCS NĂM HỌC 2014 – 2015 MỄN THI : TIẾNG ANH A. LISTENING I. I. Listen to the radio interview. Match the speakers with the sporting careers. ( 5 points) (1 point for each correct answer) 1. champion 2. football player 3. trainer 4. reporter 5. TV presenter II. Listen to the conversation and fill in each gap with the missing information.( 10 points) (1 point for each correct answer) 6. leave 7. calling 8. late 9. night 10. hours 11. report 12. between 13. planning 14. sick 15. pick up B. phonetics ( 5 points) (1 point for each correct answer) I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 16. D. 17. B II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others. 18. A 19. D 20. C C. grammar – vocabulary – language functions( 30 points) (1 point for each correct answer) I. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. D 26. D 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. C 32. C 33. B 34. C 35. C II. Give the correct form of the words in capital letters to complete the sentences. ( 36. ADMIRATION 37. CREATIVE 38. DISTINGUISH 39. INCREASINGLY 40. MISUNDERSTOOD III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correction. 41. C 42. A 43. D 44. A 45. C IV. Match each sentence in column A with its suitable response in column B. Use each response once only. 46. E 47. D 48. A 49. F 50. C D. READING I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C, D best fits each space. (10 points) (1 point for each correct answer) 51. B 52. D 53. C 54. B 55. A 56. B 57. C 58. B 59. A 60. D II. Read the following passage and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. (10 points) (1 point for each correct answer) 61. spend 62. down 63. devote/contribute 64. where 65. problem 66. been 67. no 68. are 69. solution 70. help III. Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question (5 points). (1 point for each correct answer) 71. A 72. B 73. B 74. C 75. D E. WRITING I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5 points) (1 point for each correct answer) 76. à So successful was the program that they decided to produce the 2nd season. 77. à There are more than a thousand employers in the company where my father works/ which father works in/ in which my father works. 78. à As long as you (can) keep/ stay/are calm, you will/can pass your test. 79. à Had it not been for her parents’ encouragement, she would not/ wouldn’t have entered the beauty contest. 80. à No one in our school plays /can play football better than you. No one in our school plays /can play football as well as you (do)/ (can) No one in our school is a better football player than you (are). II. Use the following suggestions to write complete sentences about Tet holiday in Vietnam. ( 10 points) 81. Tet holiday is celebrated (0,5 p) on the first day of the Lunar New Year (0,5 p). 82. Some weeks before the New Year, Vietnamese people/ the Vietnamese clean their houses and paint the walls. (0, 5 p) . Then they decorate their houses with apricot blossoms or peach blossoms (0, 5p) . 83. New things are bought on the/ this occasion (0,5 p) such as clothes, shoes and food(s)( 0,5 p). 84. One or two days before / prior to the festival, (0,5 p) people make Chung Cake, which is a/ the traditional cake (0,5 p). 85. On the New Year’s Eve ( 0, 25 p), the whole family get/ gets together for a dinner (0,5 p). 86. On the New Year morning( 0, 25 p), young members of the family(0,5 p) pay respect to the elders (0,5 p). 87. In return, they receive lucky money wrapped in red tiny envelopes (0,5 p). 88. After that people go to visit their neighbours, friends and /or relatives. (0,5 p). 89. They exchange wishes for (1,0 p) a happy and prosperous New Year to one another(0,5 p). 90. Tet is not only a time for(0,5 p). ) people to relax after a year of hard work (0,5 p).but it also helps family members, friends and relatives get closer(0,5 p). III. III. “Mother’s Day and Father’s Day are not celebrated in Vietnam, but it is necessary for Vietnamese people to have a day to celebrate for parents .” Write a passage of about 120 – 150 words to your friend to share your idea. (10 points) Form: (1 point) - Correct form of an informal letter. Task fullfillment: (4.0 points) Give the choice with all detailed explanation Well – organized. Language: - accurate grammar. (2.5 points) - appropriate vocabulary. (1.5 points) - Correct spelling and punctuation (1 point) Chú ý: Tổng số điểm là 100, sau đó qui về thang điểm 10, và làm tròn đến số thập phân thứ nhất.
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